Thursday, December 24, 2009

The Coming of Jesus


Jesus was born into the most humble of circumstances. Yet, he is the most important person ever to be born into our race. God’s power shows up most perfectly in weakness (2Corinthians 12:9). He is not impressed with our power, influence or wealth. Therefore, he chose to come to us as One who is weak. I am not intimidated by the weak. He is that still small Voice within me. He is not loud, that I would fear him and run. He is the One who whispers, that I might draw near and listen. My strength is overcome by the weakness of my God (1Corinthians 1:25).

The great and the wise knew nothing of his coming. The arrival of the Messiah was announced to shepherds, not to kings. They were simple men, and their response was immediate. They believed the messengers from heaven and looked for Jesus. When they found him, they were transformed into messengers of God themselves, as they shared their testimony with others. The first worshipers of Jesus were not the elite of the community. They were those from whom society probably withdrew. They smelled of their flocks. They were rugged people who were used to hardship and danger. They were society’s fringe and generally did not fit in, but they exemplified Jesus’ ministry. He was sent to the lost and to the broken, to those who had need of a Physician. He was not sent to those who had no need but to the one whom the priest and the Levite passed by (Luke 10:31-33. These are the last who have become first (Matthew 19:30).

The shepherds are perfect examples of how I am to receive God’s word. When they first received God’s message, they tested the spirits, seeking Jesus to prove the truth (Acts 17:10-11; 1John 4:1). They didn’t delay, but hastened to act upon the word given them. As they fixed their eyes upon Jesus (Hebrews 12:1-2), they were changed (2Corinthians 3:18). They found the word of the angels to be true, so they received heavenly message into their hearts and became the messengers of heaven, themselves. What was told to them, they told to others.

The birth of our Lord was of supreme importance to all people on the earth (Luke 2:10). The coming of Jesus was Good News and cause for great joy. There were no threats of judgment or cause for fear. Jesus was lying in the place where animals came to feed (Luke 2:12), typifying that he is our Bread of life (John 6:35, 48). Peace and goodwill has come from God to all mankind at last.

Luke 2:1-7 perfectly illustrates that God is always in control in human affairs (cp. Daniel 4:28-37; Isaiah 54:17). The Messiah was born in Bethlehem as prophesied in Micah 5:2. This was done because an emperor desired to take a census (the first of its kind) of all his subjects. Joseph had to register in the city where his records were kept, because he was of the seed of David, the King, and could be viewed as a rebel. Nevertheless, these very ordinary events complimented the word of God but hid his extraordinary work from plain view. Though the affairs of men had no godly purpose, the work of God was fulfilled through human efforts in mundane affairs.

May God help us to see the truth that his will cannot be hindered or helped by the desires of men

Sunday, December 20, 2009

Herod the Great in Prophecy


Part of understanding the birth of Jesus and his times has to do with recognizing the place of Herod the Great in Scriptures. Herod was a common man of no quality stock, a vulgar man who bought his kingship from Mark Antony.[i] It would be odd, indeed, considering his place in Jewish history, if Scripture did not mention this man who made himself such a great enemy of God and his people.http://smoodock45.wordpress.com/wp-includes/js/tinymce/plugins/wordpress/img/trans.gif Consider what is said of him in Daniel:



Daniel 11:36-39 KJV And the king shall do according to his will; and he shall exalt himself, and magnify himself above every god, and shall speak marvellous things against the God of gods, and shall prosper till the indignation be accomplished: for that that is determined shall be done. (37) Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers, nor the desire of women, nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all. (38) But in his estate shall he honour the god of forces: and a god whom his fathers knew not shall he honour with gold, and silver, and with precious stones, and pleasant things. (39) Thus shall he do in the most strong holds with a strange god, whom he shall acknowledge and increase with glory: and he shall cause them to rule over many, and shall divide the land for gain. [emphasis mine]

Most folks who study Daniel 11 assume this prophecy loses its accuracy at the time of Antiochus Epiphanies in verse-35. He desecrated the Temple, and it is because of how the Jews responded to this that Hanukkah is celebrated today. Usually it is assumed by those who trust the Scriptures are the word of God that verse-36 onward points to the last days. This is not true, or at least the last days are not those days just before the 2nd coming of Jesus! The last days in Scripture are those days in which Jesus lived and concluded with the apostles’ ministry and the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple. There is actually good reason to conclude that Daniel’s prophecy in Daniel 11 & 12 continues without a break—that is, without a break in the succession of the foreign kings who ruled over the Jews. There is a break between Antiochus Epiphanies and Herod of a little over 100 years, during which time the Hasmonean kings ruled. They were of Jewish stock and represented home rule, not foreign rule, as was the case of the kings of the north (Syria) and the south (Egypt).


Daniel 11:35 ended with the cruel king, Antiochus Epiphanies, but Daniel 11:36 begins by describing Herod, a man who also ruled with cruelty. He was always afraid of who might come and take the government from him. He had the last Hasmonean high priest killed by Antony. This way, the Roman government couldn’t change its mind and restore the kingdom to that family. Whenever he thought his throne was threatened, he had those killed who were suspect. Whether they were Pharisees, priests, rabbis, zealous religious students, or members of his own family, no one that Herod presumed a threat to his throne was permitted to live very long.


He magnified himself against all that are God’s (the Jews)—he, himself, promised wonderful works beside the God of gods (he rebuilt the Temple [Herod’s Temple] and made Aristobulus high priest taking it from Ananelus the lawful high priest. He built cities and amphitheaters. He built Caesarea[ii] to honor Caesar Augustus, who was declared god by the Roman senate (Daniel 11:37-38). Herod prospered until the wrath of God consumed him, nevertheless the will of God could not be thwarted no matter how willful or cruel he became (Daniel 11:36).


Herod was never wise concerning matters pertaining to the God of his fathers (Jehovah – the God of Isaac and Esau). Herod was an Edomite, a descendant of Esau, but claimed to be part Jew. Neither was he wise when he heard the Messiah was born. Rather than receive him, he tried to kill him. The only ‘god’ that Herod regarded was Caesar (Daniel 11:37). He honored him with presents of gold and precious stones on a number of occasions, one as Caesar was celebrating his silver jubilee. It was through honoring Caesar that he secured his own monarchy.[iii]

Thus, in the most fortified of strongholds (the Temple in Jerusalem) Herod the Great, in conjunction with honoring this strange god (Caesar) by building Caesarea with its modern seaport, set up a golden eagle over the east gate of the Temple. The eagle was the symbol of Rome.


In addition to all this, Herod re-introduced the games, picking up where Antiochus Epiphanes left off:


“On this account it was that Herod revolted from the laws of his country, and corrupted their ancient constitution, by the introduction of foreign practices, which constitution yet ought to have been preserved inviolable; by which means we became guilty of great wickedness afterward, while those religious observances which used to lead the multitude to piety were now neglected; for, in the first place, he appointed solemn games to be celebrated every fifth year, in honor of Caesar, and built a theater at Jerusalem, as also a very great amphitheater in the plain. Both of them were indeed costly works, but opposite to the Jewish customs.”[iv]

Thus, when God took away their self-government, he placed a very cruel king over the Jews, a king who thought only of himself. He put himself before God, before the promised Messiah, before the Temple and before the people. He exalted only Caesar and in doing so secured his own government and increased Caesar’s power over the Jews.


[i] Josephus: “Antiquities of the Jews” – Book XIV; chapter 14, paragraph-4 & chapter 16, paragraph-4
[ii] Josephus: “Antiquities of the Jews” – Book XV; chapter 9, paragraph-5
[iii] Josephus: “Antiquities of the Jews” – Book XV; chapter 8, paragraph-7
[iv] Josephus: “Antiquities of the Jews” – Book XV; chapter 8, paragraph-1a – read 8:1-3

Monday, December 14, 2009

Our Great God and Savior, Jesus Christ

In Titus 2:3 we are presented with a controversy concerning who we shall one day see. According to some we await the appearance of the Father and our Savior Jesus. They take issue with how the KJV and other more modern translations render this verse and point out that other translations seem to show that both the Father and the Son are indicated by Paul. Notice:
Titus 2:13 WORNT looking for the blessed hope, and glorious appearance of the great God, and our Saviour, Jesus Christ:
Titus 2:13 TRC looking for that blessed hope and glorious appearing of the mighty God, and of our Savior Jesus Christ:
Titus 2:13 NIV “While we wait for the Blessed hope – the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ.” [emphasis mine throughout]
Do either of the first two translators mean to say that while Jesus is our Savior, he is not our great God? Moreover, are we to believe in reading either of the first two translations above that we wait for the appearance of both the Father and the Son?
Does the text above call for a clear distinction between the Father and Jesus or is only Jesus meant? Some would have us believe a clear distinction is called for and point to 2Peter 1:1-2 where they claim a clear distinction is made in verse-2 between God and Jesus.
2 Peter 1:1-2 ASV Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained a like precious faith with us in the righteousness of our God and the Saviour Jesus Christ: (2) Grace to you and peace be multiplied in the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord; [emphasis mine]
2 Peter 1:1-2 WORNT Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us, in the righteousness of our God, and of our Savior Jesus Christ: (2) grace and peace be multiplied unto you, in the acknowledgement of God, and of Jesus our Lord; [emphasis mine]
2 Peter 1:1-2 NASB Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ: (2) Grace and peace be multiplied to you in the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord; [emphasis mine]
Notice the differences in translations above. The WORNT assumes the righteousness is obtained from God (the Father) and Jesus Christ (two entities). The ASV seems to say the same by placing the article before “Savior.” However, the NASB has our righteousness coming from our God and Savior, Jesus Christ, which agrees with what we are told elsewhere (Romans 5:17-18; Romans 10:4; 1Corinthians 1:30). Nevertheless, the correct translation is “…our God and Savior Jesus Christ.” The article in the Greek is before God and not Savior, indicating that Jesus is God! Though this is the construction of Greek text The article is erroneously placed before Savior in the ASV to imply two entities – our Father and Jesus.
Critics pick up on this “distinction” claiming it must agree with the distinction between God and Jesus in the next verse…” i.e. 2Peter 1:2.
In other words some modern critics claim Titus 2:13 should be understood that we await the appearing of both our Father and Jesus and claim support in 2Peter 1:1-2.
In each of the translations above the word knowledge in verse-2 is modified in the Greek by the prepositional phrases of God and of Jesus, both prepositional phrases being in the genitive case. The verse could just as well be translated as one prepositional phrase, with the Greek word, kai (G2532 – and) translated as it is often done into the English word: even when one clause of a sentence amplifies the meaning of a previous clause. This is done in most translations at Romans 5:14, Romans 9:24, 1Corinthians 3:5, 2Corinthians 10:13, Ephesians 4:4, Philemon 1:19, to name a few. Moreover, since we know there is no “accurate knowledge” of our Father obtainable apart from what our Savior reveals about him (Matthew 11:27), “even Jesus our Lord” is the only accurate rendering I can see for 2Peter 1:2. However, lest anyone believe that I am saying this on my own authority, notice how Wuest translates the verse:
2Peter 1:2 Wuest Grace to you and peace be multiplied in the sphere of and by the experiential knowledge of God, even Jesus, our Lord. [emphasis mine]
Jesus said that getting to know himself is the same as getting to know his Father, and that the Father cannot be approached apart from the Son (John 14:6-7). How am I able to know anyone whom I have neither seen nor heard (John 5:37), unless someone that I can see and hear reveals that one to me? Therefore, 2Peter 1:2 must refer to an “accurate knowledge” of our God and Savior, even Jesus our Lord! The only accurate knowledge we have of God is that which has been given to us by Jesus in the New Testament and the Angel of the LORD in the Old Testament.
There is no reason whatsoever to change the wording in 2Peter1:1 to agree with 2Peter 1:2, because they already agree. It is just one’s own doctrinal supposition that makes one believe they are contradictory. Are we to change Scripture to agree with our doctrine, or should we cause our doctrine to agree with Scripture? The answer is obvious, but has not always been followed as a rule of study by many Bible students throughout our Christian history. May the Lord have mercy upon us and give us eyes to see and ears to hear.
If this reasoning in God’s word is true thus far, then the question remains concerning Titus 2:13, does the Scripture refer to our Father and Jesus, or does this it refer to only Jesus? The truth of God’s word is very simple. Although it follows the rules of grammar, we do not always need an expert in the Greek grammar to decipher the great mysteries of his word. He does not leave the truth solely in the hands of the experts to direct the understanding of the simple, unpretentious Bible student. God’s word is not understood by a quick and ready mind, but by one in whom the Spirit of God dwells. It is God’s own Spirit that enables each one who submits to the Lord to understand the legacy given to us in the Holy Scriptures. In the case of Titus 2:13 the key to understanding to whom it specifically refers is the phrase, “…manifestation of the great God.” The word manifestation in the Greek is epiphaneia (G2015) and appears only six times in the New Testament. It is translated into the KJV with the words appearing and brightness. Notice:
2Thessalonians 2:8 KJV And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
1Timothy 6:14 KJV That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ:
2Timothy 1:10 KJV But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel:
2Timothy 4:1 KJV I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom;
2Timothy 4:8 KJV Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me only, but unto all them also that love his appearing.
Titus 2:13 KJV Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; [emphasis mine throughout]
We have no Scriptural evidence that we await the manifestation of our Father. As far as I can tell, the clause in question in Titus 2:13 can be translated one of two ways: “…the glorious manifestation of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ” or “…the manifestation of the glory of the great God, namely our Savior, Jesus Christ.” There is only one manifestation indicated, in this verse, and it is our Savior, Jesus Christ, who will one day appear to us again. He is also the glory of God, as Hebrew 1:3 testifies. Jesus is the “radiance, outshining, brightness, effulgence, shining splendor” of the glory of God, the specific word depending upon the translation used. Therefore “…the manifestation of the glory of the great God…” is another way of saying the manifestation of our Savior Jesus Christ. This glory has reference to the Shekinah glory that dwelt in the Temple and was seen in the pillar of the cloud that went before Israel, while they dwelt in the wilderness. It was the manifestation of the Great God of Israel the Angel of the LORD or the Word of God (John 1:1) that became man (John 1:14) in the person of Jesus of Nazareth.
I believe either translation which I suggest above would be correct, because there is no God greater than Jesus. There is only one God – but he reveals himself as a plurality dwelling in unity. The suggestion of some modern critics cannot be correct, because it calls for the manifestation of our heavenly Father. In every other place in the Bible these same critics agree that this word, epiphaneia (G2015) refers to Jesus. There is no reference in Scripture to support their claim that we await the manifestation of our Father and Jesus in Titus 2:13. Our Father is seen in and through his Son’s manifestation, both in Jesus’ coming as the Son of Man and in his glorious appearance as the Son of God.
Let God be true though every man is a liar. Even though all men agree, if God says differently, God is correct! The word of God clearly makes reference to our awaiting the return of Christ. If this does not agree with a man’s doctrine, then which of the two must we believe? I would hope that all God’s children would seek the glory of their God rather than that of men (cp. John 12:42-43), even when this means personal ostracism from those to whom we have given our friendship. Jesus knows the difficulty in taking such a lonely path, but he says the rewards are great for those who do – both in this lifetime and when he returns.

Thursday, December 10, 2009

Is Jesus Our Only Master or Only Lord?

There is a very interesting passage in the book of Jude concerning the Deity of Jesus, as it pertains to how modern critics view him. Jude 1:4 calls for our attention, and we need to pause to take in the full impact of what Jude is saying. Notice what the Scripture says:

Jude 1:4 NASB For certain persons have crept in unnoticed, those who were long beforehand marked out for this condemnation, ungodly persons who turn the grace of our God into licentiousness and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ. (emphasis: mine)

Does the word only describe Master or Lord or both? If it describes Lord, then Jude 1:5 continues to describe our only Lord as Jehovah, who led Israel out of Egypt. In verse-9 Jehovah (Lord) is asked to rebuke Satan, and finally in Jude 1:14, Enoch prophesied of the Lord (Jehovah) coming with his holy myriad to execute judgment upon the ungodly. This last mention of the Lord is a clear reference to Jesus. Notice, Revelation 19:11-21 where Christ returns to earth with “the armies that were in heaven” and “judges and makes war in righteousness” (Revelation 19:11, 14). Compare this with the Scripture where Enoch prophesies:

Jude 1:14-15 NET. Now Enoch, the seventh in descent beginning with Adam, even prophesied of them, saying, “Look! The Lord is coming with thousands and thousands of his holy ones, (15) to execute judgment on all, and to convict every person of all their thoroughly ungodly deeds that they have committed, and of all the harsh words that ungodly sinners have spoken against him.”

In each of the above references to the Lord in Jude 1:5, 9 & 14 the Greek word is Kurios (G2962) in the Greek. This is the very same word translated into the word Lord in Jude 1:4. Therefore, if the word only refers to “…Lord, Jesus Christ” in verse-4, the same Greek word translated into the Lord in verses 5, 9 and 14 must be ascribed to the “only…Lord, Jesus Christ” as well. In other words Jesus and Jehovah (the Lord) are one and the same Being. The Scriptures do not reveal a promise that our Father in heaven will manifest himself to us in any way other than in his Son (cp. John 14:7-9 and John 15: 24). Considering this argument alone, Jude 1:14 would have to indicate that the Lord (Jehovah) is Jesus regardless of what we find concerning the word only in Jude 1:4.

On the other hand, does the word only, used in Jude 1:4, describe the word, Master? The word master means: “one who has absolute ownership and uncontrolled power.” [W.E. Vine’s An Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words – G1203, under the word: master] It is despotes (G1203) in the Greek, from which we get our word despot. If the word, only, describes the Greek word despotes, then Jesus is described in the following scriptures:

Luke 2:29 NET. “Now, according to your word, Sovereign Lord (G1203 – despotes), permit your servant to depart in peace. (Simeon’s prayer of praise to God).

Acts 4:24 NET. When they heard this, they raised their voices to God with one mind and said, “Master of all (G1203 – despotes), you who made the heaven, the earth, the sea, and everything that is in them, (Cp. Colossians 1:15-17).

2 Timothy 2:21 NET. So if someone cleanses himself of such behavior, he will be a vessel for honorable use, set apart, useful for the Master (G1203 – despotes), prepared for every good work.

2 Peter 2:1 NET. But false prophets arose among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you. These false teachers will infiltrate your midst with destructive heresies, even to the point of denying the Master (G1203 – despotes) who bought them. As a result, they will bring swift destruction on themselves. (Matthew 13:44-46; cp. my study on Acts 20:28 above where it is claimed that Jesus ,God, bought us with his own blood).

Revelation 6:10 NET. They cried out with a loud voice, “How long, Sovereign Master (G1203 – despotes), holy and true, before you judge those who live on the earth and avenge our blood?” (cp. Revelation 19:11; Jude 1:14; John 5:22 – our Father judges no man, but has committed all judgment to be in the hands of Christ). [parenthesis mine throughout]

In the Scriptures quoted above, not only is Jesus seen as our Master (G1203 – despotes) and therefore our only Master (Jude 1:4), but some of them indicate that Christ, (our Master) is worshiped. The first Christians prayed to him as their Master – the One who bought them (Acts 4:24); the prayers of the saints in heaven are directed to the Master and Judge of all (Revelation 6:10, cp. John 5:22 and 2Peter 2:1).

The fact that Christ is worshiped is evident in the New Testament. The Greek word for worship is proskyneo and means to bow down, worship. It is always used in the New Testament in relation to a divine object [Bromiley’s Theological dictionary of the New Testament; proskyneo; C. The New Testament, page 949].

We are to worship (proskyneo) God and God alone (Matthew 4:10). Satan desires worship (proskyneo) (Matthew 4:9); and succeeds to cause the world to worship (proskyneo) the beast and his image (Revelation 13:4, 15). Jesus received worship (proskyneo) and never rebuked anyone for doing so (Matthew 8:2; 9:18; 14:33; 15:25; 20:20). After his resurrection his followers worshiped (proskyneo) him (Matthew 28:9) including his apostles (verse-17), but some others with the disciples doubted. When Thomas saw him, he called him both Lord and God (John 20:28)! In all of this Jesus never once told his worshipers that they shouldn’t do this. Yet, when Peter was receiving the same worship (proskyneo), he demanded the man to stop at once (Acts 10:25-26). When John, the apostle, began to worship (proskyneo) the angel speaking to him, he was told to stop (Revelation 19:10; 22:8-9) for only God is to receive worship (proskyneo), yet Jesus was worshiped (proskyneo) and never once rebuked the one who worshiped him!

In conclusion, the word only can describe either the word: Master or Lord, or even both, because both titles belong to Jesus. The Scriptures seem to demand that all God’s children bow down to Christ as our only Master and Lord (Jehovah)!

Monday, December 7, 2009

Were We Purchaced with the Blood of God?

     Some modern critics take issue with how the King James Version translates Acts 20:28. The idea that seems to bother them is that God purchased us “with his own blood.” Several groups would rather see the phrase translated, “the blood of his own (Son).” Notice the Scripture in both the Contemporary English Version and the King James Version:

Acts 20:28 CEV Look after yourselves and everyone the Holy Spirit has placed in your care. Be like shepherds to God’s church. It is the flock that he bought with the blood of his own Son .”— (emphasis mine)
Acts 20: 28 KJV “Take heed, therefore, unto yourselves and to all the flock, over which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to feed the Church of God which he has purchased with his own blood.”— (emphasis mine)

     Which translation is correct? How should we understand this Scripture? Did God purchase us with his own blood as the King James Version declares, or should we understand that God (the Father) purchased us with the blood of his own Son (i.e. with Jesus’ blood)? If this Scripture should be translated into “with his own blood,” then Acts 20:28 makes an emphatic statement that Jesus is God, and, since the article is present before the word God, this is a very important declaration. It would virtually end any controversy anyone had with John 1:1. Concerning this point, the translators of the New English Translation say of Acts 20:28,

The genitive construction could be taken in two ways: (1) as an attributive genitive (second attributive position) meaning “his own blood”; or (2) as a possessive genitive, “with the blood of his own.” In this case the referent is the Son, and the referent has been specified in the translation for clarity. See further C. F. DeVine, “The Blood of God,” CBQ 9 (1947): 381-408.[marginal notes in the NET Bible]

     The controversy, therefore, is not the grammatical content of the verse, because everyone seems to agree that the phrase could be translated either way and still be accurate. The controversy in Acts 20:28 evolves out of the liberty taken by adding the word Son to the translation. How can we know for certain how to translate this Scripture?

     While grammatical content of a Scripture is important in understanding what is being said, context is just as important and more so where grammar fails to be specific enough. In Acts 20 Paul spoke of his faithfulness in preaching the whole word of God (verse 27) and he commanded the elders at Ephesus to be faithful as well (verse 28). The reason given is that the Church of God was bought with the most precious price of all. In verse 29 Paul warned the elders that, after he left men, even of their own number, would come in and not spare the flock. What Paul said here could be compared with 1Corinthians 11:17-29. There, Paul wrote in his letter that he sent to the Corinthians concerning heresy. There, some had entered the Church of God at Corinth and had not spared the flock (1Corinthians 11:17-19; cp. Acts 20:29), seeking to divide the Church and gain followers after themselves.

     In 1Corinthians 11 Paul spoke in allegory. In essence what Paul said was that when we come together, it is to partake of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. We do this through worship (hymns and spiritual songs), listening to the whole word of God as given in a sermon by our pastor, and through prayer. In this way our spirits are fed (John 6:53). This is the Lord’s Supper (of which the bread and the wine are symbols). When we meet together to hear the word of God preached, we are showing the world that we are trusting in the Lord’s death (1Corinthians 11:23-26).

     Heresy divides the Church of God. The point of heresy is never one of truth or error. The point of heresy is always one of ownership of the flock. Heretics come into the Body of Christ in order to rob a portion of God’s heritage (the Church) for themselves. Once I begin to teach what I have studied in the Scriptures in an effort to win a following after myself (1Corinthians 11:17-19), I am seeking to take the eyes of my brothers and sisters off Jesus and cause them to look to me as their teacher. It is a matter of spiritual food, and from where one’s meal comes. In the end it is a question of ownership, whose I am. In other words, if I could obtain a following out of the Church of God for myself, I would be feeding upon those who follow me, and I would be using Jesus’ death as a platform to further my ends. Moreover, if members of the Body of Christ trusted in me, as the Corinthian church was trusting in certain teachers in the first century (1Corinthians 1:12; 3:4; 11:17-19), they would be spiritually feeding upon me instead of Christ. We would be partakers one of another. Therefore, we would be unable to be partakers of the Lord’s Supper, because none of us would be feeding upon Christ (John 6:53-57).

     Paul continued his argument in 1Corinthians 12. We are all gifted differently and exercise our gifts in different ministries. We cause those ministries to function out of different organizations (works). Nevertheless, we are all of one Spirit, one Lord and one God (1Corinthians 12:4-6). We function collectively as the Body of Christ. We are his. Yet, of necessity, we must partake of one another to work effectively. Notice

1Corinthians 10:15-18 KJV I speak as to wise men; judge ye what I say. 16 The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ? 17 For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread. 18 Behold Israel after the flesh: are not they which eat of the sacrifices partakers of the altar? (emphasis mine)

     With this in mind and comparing it to what Paul said in 1Corinthians 11:23-26, we see that in a very real sense the Church of God is compared with the body and blood of Christ. Paul said that he was faithful and delivered all that was given to him from the Lord to the Church of God (1Corinthians 11:23; cp. Acts 20:27). God gives teachers to the Body of Christ (1Corinthians 12:28; Ephesians 4:11) to build up the Church of God in Christ. However, if I exalt one teacher over another or if I teach others in order to have someone agree with me, I am partaking of the spiritual body and blood of Christ in an unworthy manner (1Corinthians 11:27-29; cp. Acts 20:26-27 & 29-30).

     Paul said that he was innocent of any man’s blood, because he declared to everyone the whole council of God (Acts 20:26-27). On the other hand, those who emphasize only part of the truth and get a following after themselves (heresy) are guilty of the body and blood of the Lord (1Corinthians 11:19-20, 27-29). We are, after all, Christ’s and not a man’s (viz. Lutherans, Wesleyans, Catholics, Baptists, Jehovah’s Witnesses etc.).

     Considering all this and applying it to Acts 20:28 we see that Paul is speaking of the exceedingly precious price that was paid for the Church of God. It is the responsibility of all who participate in each and every function of that church to be faithful, because we are not our own, but are bought with an exceedingly precious price (1Corinthians 6:19-20). If I differentiate between Father and Son in Acts 20:28, I am in reality saying that the essence of one is more precious than the essence of the other. The whole point of this verse, however, is to show the exceedingly precious price that was paid for our salvation. If the most precious price was not paid, then Paul’s argument falls short of being the very best.

     Leviticus 17:11 says, “the life of the flesh is in the blood…” What kind of life was in Jesus? Was he merely a descendant of Adam? Is this the most precious life he was able to offer at Calvary? Are we then to understand that the life of God was not in Christ when he hung on the cross (cp. 2Corinthians 5:19)? I am not speaking of God spiritually being in Christ as he is in all of us. I am speaking of the literal life of Christ. Was his literal life that of God? Grammatical content may permit me to play games with the meaning of this Scripture, but context demands that Acts 20:28 be translated that God paid for our salvation with the most precious price of all, “with his own blood.” If I add the word Son to this verse, I demean the work and the character of God.

     God is love and when he acts, he does so out of the character of love (1John 4:8, 16). If I apply this to the work of God in our salvation, what can I say about Jesus? If Jesus’ death was indeed an act of love, wouldn’t he have had to have the freedom to choose to live or die? Liberty is an inalienable right possessed by love. Jesus had to have both possession of his own life and the liberty to lay it down or not (John 10:17-18). In other words, our salvation had to have been his choice. Otherwise, if our heavenly Father owned Jesus and purchased our salvation with Jesus’ blood, what would it have cost our Father to sacrifice the life’s blood of a slave? If this were the case, our Father could not have acted out of love, because there was no real sacrifice on his part. How can Jesus offer himself as a free-will offering, if he is the property of someone else? If Jesus were his Father’s property, what cause would there be to believe Jesus loves us or even that our heavenly Father loves us? (Since I cannot purchase anything unless I own what I offer as payment, how could our heavenly Father pay for our salvation with Jesus’ blood unless Jesus was his property? It is odd to my own ear to phrase this idea in this fashion, since I believe that God is One. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit purchased my salvation together, not as individuals. However, the differentiation is made by certain groups and modern critics, so I must speak using their terminology. Jesus said in John 15:13, “Greater love has no man than this: that he should lay down his life for his friends” (KJV). For this Scripture to be true, Christ had to be free to offer himself or to decline. An act of love is not an act of love, if there is no freedom to refuse to do the act. If Christ was a slave to our Father, then he did only that which he was commanded to do and is (to use his own judgment) unprofitable (Luke 17:10 KJV). Therefore, the Scripture must read, “…to feed the church of God, which he purchased with his own blood.”

     Below are a collection of Scriptures that should convey the proposition that Acts 20:28 must be translated to show Jesus purchased our salvation with his own, i.e., God’s blood, or if you prefer, “the blood of his own (body)”. I say Jesus purchased our salvation, but he made manifest what was in the Father’s heart through his work as man. God – Father, Son and Holy Spirit – is our Savior, and he purchased our salvation with his own blood from his own human body.

    John 10:11 – Christ is the Good Shepherd who gives his life for his sheep. John 10:17 – Father loves Jesus because he (Jesus) lays down his life that he might take it up again. John 10:18 – No man is able to take Jesus’ life; he laid it down of his own free will. He had power to lay it down and to take it up again. Hebrews 1:3 – By himself, Christ purged our sins! Hebrews 7:27 – Christ satisfied the Law’s demands when he once and for all time offered himself. No one offered him, he offered himself! Hebrews 9:14 – Christ offered himself without spot, through the eternal Spirit to God. Hebrews 9:26 – Christ put away sin by the sacrifice of himself!
     In summary, just because a Scripture presents a difficult thought or might be troublesome in the Greek, as some modern critics suppose, or does not fit into one’s theology is not grounds for changing the Scripture. I have found that if I lift up Christ and place him in the highest place (Psalm 97:9; Ephesians 1:20-21), I have no trouble submitting to him and caring properly for the Church of God. That is, as a Sunday school teacher (replace this gift with any other spiritual gift) I have respect for Christ as the Master of his house. I do not wish to intrude into his supervision as the Teacher of all. Moreover, I must have respect for my brothers and sisters when we differ in understanding the word of God. The LORD may require me to present the truth as he revealed it to me, but by no means has he demanded me to see to it that everyone tow the line and submit to what I say. The moment I allow myself to demand of my brethren that they believe me, I have already removed Christ from the highest place in my heart and mind. Once I do this, I begin to judge the Church of God, and split Christ’s Church into the faithful and the faithless. I would find myself judging those brethren in Christ who do not believe as I do. In other words, I would be “guilty of the Lord’s body and blood” (1Corinthians 11:27)! May God forgive us for dividing his flock and enable us to partake only of the Lord’s Supper.

Sunday, December 6, 2009

Jesus—The Firstborn of God


     Jesus is described the Firstborn in Colossians 1:18 and then again in Revelation 3:14. This Greek word is arche (G.746). It is often used by some Christians who don’t believe Jesus is God to indicate that Jesus is a created being. The implication is Jesus is the “beginning of the creation by God,” (Revelation 3:14), or the first one that God created.

     In 1Corinthians 15:45 we see Jesus described as our second and last Adam. He is referred to in Colossians 1:18 as the beginning the firstborn from the dead. In other words Jesus is the beginning of the new (spiritual) creation of God. By Jesus rising from the dead and requiring that we be born again in and through him in order to be saved, he became the Beginning of the (new) creation of God. As such, he is the Firstborn (from the dead) and, therefore. the Ruler of the new creation, just as Adam was the “firstborn” and “ruler” of the old creation. The same word (arche) is used in Revelation 3:14, but in Colossians we are able to see its meaning as applied to Jesus. It is in relationship to his being the Firstborn from the dead and, therefore, King of the Creation of God.

     With regard to context, Colossians 1:13-18 shows that we, as Christians, have been transplanted from one authority to that of another. The whole context of these verses is one of authority and not one of origin. We were born into Adam’s race. He is the authority (power) of darkness, in as much as he defiled himself in Eden, and we all trace our roots ultimately to him. However, God has “transplanted us into the kingdom of the Son of his love…” (Colossians 1:13).

     Adam was the ruler or beginner or leader of his race, and because of his fall into rebellion, we were all born into sin (power of darkness). Jesus is the last Adam (1Corinthians 15:45). In him the new creation has its source or beginning (2Corinthians 5:17; Galatians 6:15; Ephesians 2:10). It is in this sense that the Greek word arche (G.746) is to be understood. Christ is the Beginning and therefore Leader, Lord, Governor or Ruler of the new creation.

     The entire book of Revelation reveals an ongoing battle between the kingdom of darkness (Adam’s race) and the Kingdom of Light (those who are created in Christ). In the third chapter of Revelation, Christ is presented to the Church of Laodicea as the Faithful Witness in contrast to their unfaithful witness. Then he is said to be the Arche of the creation of God – the Leader or Governor of all creation – in contrast to their unwillingness to submit to his authority or Lordship. Making a quick survey of a few other texts where the word arche is used will show that this is the sense here in Colossians and Revelation:

Romans 8:38arche (rulerships or governments) are unable to separate Christians from the love of God
Ephesians 1:21 – after Christ rose from the dead, his authority extended far above all arches (governments) etc.
 Ephesians 3:10 – the arches (governments) are taught wisdom through God’s dealings with Christians
Colossians 2:10, 15 – Christ is the head of arches (government) and authority, and displayed rulership over them in his resurrection, for they sentenced him to die! he brought their authority to naught by rising from the dead.
Titus 3:1 – as Christians we are to subject ourselves and obey arches, (governments) authorities, and rulers.

      That Jesus is eternal is testified in Scripture very clearly:

1 John 1:1-2 KJV That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life; (2) (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)
     If we would break the verse down into its parts, we would have:


The Word of Life is
  • which was from the beginning
  • which we have heard
  • which we have seen with our eyes
  • which we have looked upon
  • and our hands have handled

Eternal Life was made manifest
  • we have seen it (him)
  • and bear witness (of him)
  • and shew (i.e. speak) unto you (about him)

     In other words Jesus, the Word of Life, is Eternal Life or the Eternal (Being). He came from our Father to be seen and known of men. This is emphasized again at the close of John’s letter,

1 John 5:19-20 NASB We know that we are of God, and that the whole world lies in the power of the evil one. (20) And we know that the Son of God has come, and has given us understanding so that we may know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life.

     These two verses stand in contrast to one another. What we know in verse-19 is contrasted with what we know in verse-20. We know the whole world lies in the evil one, or Adam. All that we are and have become is found in him. He rebelled from God and this whole world is a product of that rebellion. All that is contrary to God has its source in Adam. In verse-20 we know that the Son of God has arrived (i.e. the Messiah or second Adam). He has given us understanding that we may know what is true. We are in what is true (or the true One), that is, in his (God’s, verse-19) Son, Jesus Christ. Jesus is the true One in contrast to the wicked one in verse-19. He is the second Adam in verse-20 in contrast to the first Adam in verse-19 (i.e. the wicked one). We, who have been given understanding by the Son of God are in him, which is in contrast to the whole world being in the wicked one in verse-19. John concludes by saying that this one (Jesus) is the true God and everlasting life.

     The pronoun, this (is the true God) in verse-20, refers to its immediate noun, which in this case is “Jesus Christ,” but even if it should modify “the true One” as some commentators claim, this still refers to Jesus Christ who is the true One in contrast with the wicked one in verse-19.

     In his Gospel, John describes the Word (Jesus) as the Light that gives life to every man (John 1:4, 6). John began his first letter by saying that “Everlasting Life,” who was with the Father, was manifest to him and the other apostles. They handled Life, looked at him and listened to him (1John 1:1-2). John ends his letter by describing the “Everlasting Life,” who was made manifest to them, as the true God.


     To summarize, we have found testified in the Scriptures that Jesus is the Creator of all there is (John 1:3; Colossians 1:15-17); yet he was not created by anyone (Deuteronomy 32:39; Isaiah 43:10-11). He has been with God from the beginning, and is himself called God (John 1:1; 1John 5:20). We can, therefore, say that Jesus and our Father are One – Creator and God (John 10:30; Hebrews 3:4). That Jesus and our Father are One can be further attested in that, after his resurrection, Jesus commanded the disciples to go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit (Matthew 28:19). They went out just as he commanded them (Mark 16:20), and baptized all in the name of Jesus. In the Greek the name Jesus is Iesous (G.2424); and means “Jehovah is salvation.” Jesus was filled with the Holy Spirit (Luke 4:1, 14) and with the presence of Father (2Corinthians 5:19). God was One in Christ in saving mankind. Jesus, meaning “Jehovah saves,” is the name (singular in Matthew 28:19) of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38, 8:16, 10:48 and 19:5)! There is salvation in no other name (Acts 4:9-12). Therefore, Jesus is Jehovah!


Saturday, December 5, 2009

Is Jesus a Creature or the Creator?

On numerous occasions I have had the pleasure of discussing the issue of whether or not Jesus is God with people who either do not believe Jesus is God or believe he is something divine, but not “the” God. I have had these discussions either in my home or on a discussion forum over the Internet. According to John 1:3, Jesus is the Creator of all things,

John 1:3 NET. All things were created by him, and apart from him not one thing was created that has been created. (emphasis, mine)

With this in mind, it is difficult to understand how some Christians could conclude that Jesus is a created being. Some Christians I have spoken with describe Jesus as the Firstborn of God and interpreting this to mean that Jesus is a created being. Indeed, Jesus is called the Firstborn in Scripture, but is the Biblical meaning of this term limited to Webster’s definition of the word firstborn, i.e. the first child born into a family? What is the Biblical definition of the word firstborn, and is it different from Webster’s definition? Notice how Paul puts it in Colossians and compare it with John 1:3 above:

Colossians 1:15-17 NET. (15) He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation, (16) for all things in heaven and on earth were created by him — all things, whether visible or invisible, whether thrones or dominions, whether principalities or powers — all things were created through him and for him. (17) He himself is before all things and all things are held together in him.

In addition to Webster’s definition of eldest or the child born first, the word of God includes the terms authority and birthright to clarify the full meaning of the word firstborn. This definition is not taken from the Greek or Hebrew dictionaries but is shown within the Biblical text.

In Colossians 1:15-17 the intent or meaning of the word firstborn is shown in the context. The intent there is to reveal Christ as the ultimate authority. For example, consider 1Chronicles 5:1 where it plainly states that Reuben had the firstborn status among the sons of Jacob, because he was born first, just as Webster’s dictionary would define the word firstborn. Yet, because he defiled his father’s bed, Reuben lost his birthright to Joseph (compare: Jeremiah 31:9 where Joseph’s son Ephraim is used for all Israel) and rulership or authority to Judah (cp. Genesis 49:1-4, 8-12). So, the problem with using only Webster’s definition is that, according to Scripture, the firstborn status can go to a younger son, so the son who is born first can lose his status or rights as the firstborn in his family.

Another example of the meaning that Scripture attaches to the word firstborn is found in the covenant God made with David in Psalms 89:20-37. This covenant concerns the blessing that both his seed and his throne would endure forever. Note one verse in particular:

Psalm 89:27 KJV “Also I will make him my firstborn, higher than the kings of the earth”.

We find in this Scripture not only a reference to Jesus, the Messiah, but also God’s definition of the word firstborn as it applies to Jesus. Firstborn is defined as the one who is greater in authority than all kings (or rulers) of the earth. One more comparison from the Scriptures ought to put this argument to rest. Notice Revelation 1:5 where the New Testament makes an obvious reference to Psalm 89:27:

Revelation 1:5 NET. and from Jesus Christ — the faithful witness, the firstborn from among the dead, the ruler over the kings of the earth. To the one who loves us and has set us free from our sins at the cost of his own blood (emphasis mine)

The term firstborn in Scripture is definitely richer in meaning than what Webster ascribes to the word in our modern dictionary. We must be particularly careful not to place present day definitions upon words having a peculiar significance in the Biblical record. There may be times when Webster will do a good job in defining something for us in the Bible. However, if Webster contradicts or falls short in interpreting the full meaning that the Scriptures place upon a word, such as firstborn, we should let Webster on the shelf and go with God! May the Lord open our eyes to the truth of his word.


Wednesday, December 2, 2009

Is Jesus Jehovah?

It is not my intention to debate whether God’s name should be pronounced Yahweh or Jehovah or even if vowels should be inserted at all in the Hebrew YHWH. In the last instance God’s name would be unpronounceable. If one tried to pronounce the sound of the Hebrew YHWH only the exhaling of breadth would occur. I know certain groups prefer one of the above references to God over the others. I am comfortable with any of these references when speaking of God.

Most people who trust the Scriptures to be the word of God believe that the one Moses spoke to on Mount Sinai was God (Exodus 20:1-2 – YHWH, Jehovah or Yahweh). In Exodus 33:18 Moses asked Jehovah to show him his glory. In Exodus 33:20-23 Jehovah told Moses that no one could look upon his face and live, but he would cover Moses’ face while he passed by, and Moses would see God’s glory from the rear. Exodus chapter 34 goes on to show that Moses saw the back of Jehovah and heard his voice. The word of God records in the New Testament that no man has ever seen God in his glory or divine essence:

John 1:18 KJV No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Furthermore, Jesus himself has said of Father that men have neither heard his voice at any time nor seen his figure (John 5:37; 6:46). If this is so, how is it that the Scripture records on a number of occasions that men have both heard and seen Jehovah?

    Exodus 24:9-10 - Moses, Aaron, and his sons and 70 elders saw the LORD, the God of Israel Exodus 34:5-7 - God revealed his glory to Moses; and he saw the LORD’s back. Numbers 12:8 - The LORD spoke mouth to mouth with Moses, and he saw the form of God Deuteronomy 4:12, 15 - While Israel saw no form of God, they did hear his voice as he spoke from the fire. Ezekiel 1, 2, 3, 4 - Who did Ezekiel see if not Jehovah GOD? Isaiah 6:1-10 - Isaiah saw Jehovah God.

Isaiah 6:1-10 ASV In the year that king Uzziah died I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up; and his train filled the temple. (2) Above him stood the seraphim: each one had six wings; with twain he covered his face, and with twain he covered his feet, and with twain he did fly. (3) And one cried unto another, and said, Holy, holy, holy, is Jehovah of hosts: the whole earth is full of his glory. (4) And the foundations of the thresholds shook at the voice of him that cried, and the house was filled with smoke. (5) Then said I, Woe is me! for I am undone; because I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips: for mine eyes have seen the King, Jehovah of hosts. (6) Then flew one of the seraphim unto me, having a live coal in his hand, which he had taken with the tongs from off the altar: (7) and he touched my mouth with it, and said, Lo, this hath touched thy lips; and thine iniquity is taken away, and thy sin forgiven. (8) And I heard the voice of the Lord, saying, Whom shall I send, and who will go for us? Then I said, Here am I; send me. (9) And he said, Go, and tell this people, Hear ye indeed, but understand not; and see ye indeed, but perceive not. (10) Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they sea with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and turn again, and be healed. (emphasis mine)

I quoted these ten verses to make a point concerning Jesus. The New Testament makes a special reference to Isaiah 6:1-10 in John 12:31-42. I would like to quote the comment John makes in verse 41 and 42:

John 12:41-42 NET. Isaiah said these things because he saw Christ's glory, and spoke about him. (42) Nevertheless, even among the rulers many believed in him, but because of the Pharisees they would not confess Jesus to be the Christ, so that they would not be put out of the synagogue.

It is clear that Isaiah saw Jehovah GOD (Isaiah 6:1, 5), and it is also quite clear that he heard Jehovah’s voice (Isaiah 6:8). If Jehovah is not a name ascribed to Jesus but only to our heavenly Father, how can Jesus say that no one has ever seen the Father or heard his voice (John 5:37; 6:46)? The only conclusion that can be drawn from John’s commentary of Isaiah 6:1-10 is Jesus is Jehovah GOD! Who else does Isaiah see? Clearly John referred to Jesus when he said some rulers of the synagogues believed he was the Messiah but were afraid to declare this openly. Clearly it is none other than Jesus that John meant in saying that Isaiah spoke of him, for why would the rulers be afraid to openly trust the heavenly Father. There was no controversy concerning the Father being Jehovah God.

If Jesus is not God, then he makes some very outrageous statements when he makes some comparisons between himself and his Father:

    John 5:19 - The Father and Jesus are equal in working power; for our Father never acts independently of Jesus (v.20) John 5:21-22 - They both have power to raise the dead. John 5:23 - Both demand equal honor John 12:44-45 - Faith in Jesus is the same as faith in our heavenly Father John 14:7,9 - To behold Jesus is the same as beholding our Father, and knowing Jesus is the same as knowing the Father.

If my faith in Jesus is the same as having faith in our Father, are they not One in essence? After all who could ever say, “Having faith in Martin Luther…” or “Having faith in the Pope…” or “Having faith in whoever might be considered the founder of your own denomination of Christianity is the same as having faith in Jesus or our Father.” Trusting men in the place of trusting Jesus and God is how we have gotten into trouble down through the centuries. When I place my trust in mere men, I am bearing fruit to the flesh (Galatians 5:19-20; cp. 1Corinthians 1:12-13; 3:3-4). Moreover, when Jesus works in my life, the Father is working too. Is it not the truth to say that God is at work in my life when Jesus touches me? If am honoring our Father when I honor Jesus (John 5:23), is it not honoring God to honor Jesus? In addition to all this, if all I know of God comes from knowing Jesus, is it not correct to say, “To know Jesus is to know God!” (cp. John 14:9)? Therefore, could there be any doubt that Jesus himself is God, even Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob?